Earlier I came across an amazing statement by our highest court:“Obviously, direct control of medical practice in the states is beyond the power of the federal government.”The Supreme Court said that in a unanimous 1925 opinion which held that the Harrison Narcotics Act could not be used to prosecute doctors who prescribe narcotics to addicts. ...My question is, if it was obvious to a unanimous Supreme Court that “direct control of medical practice in the states is beyond the power of the federal government” in 1925, and we still have the same Constitution without a single amendment giving the federal government such power, then what the hell happened?What is obvious today is precisely the opposite of what was obvious in 1925.
From the comments:
The answer is blindingly, crushingly simple. We are ever so much smarter now. Also, shut up.
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